Sub-prime delinquency has increased drastically in period-to-period % terms, but from an unnaturally low base. What has driven the current crisis is the extreme effective leverage applied by some of the ABS buyers. You can make a AAA tranche out of sub-prime paper, but only by putting it in a last-loss position vis-a-vis a first-loss "equity" tranche. Buy that equity tranche and you’ve already applied leverage. Buy it on deep margin and you’ve got a lever big enough to shift the Moon. And the slightest bump wipes you out. This has very little to do with work-out difficulties (and work-outs often don’t, um, work out anyway) or less info on the part of new-style lenders (they have less info, to be sure, but it shows in pricing differentials; I regularly see us undercut by credit unions that know their customers well). It has to do with the risk that must exist if you’re getting outsized returns, even if you don’t see it.
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What does that mean?
Funny, I had this exact conversation over lunch with a colleague. For our clients (large insurance companies) the risk profile of the AAA tranches they hold aren’t drastically different, it’s only when you move down the ladder that it becomes an issue. It’s the mispricing (or mis-rating in hindsight) of the lower tranches that funds will get killed on, and frankly, there aren’t too many widows and orphans out there picking up z-tranches. Should funds get bailed out for taking these positions? For one, it’s favouring short term liquidity over long-term liquidity in the sense that a bailout today will, while helping clear the logjam today, distort the long-term valuations of these bonds away from the fundamentals. Second, there’s a fund on either side of each transaction, so for every fund that’s getting killed today, someone else read it correctly. The downside is that people aren’t packaging new bonds until they can price them accurately. Is this a negative turn of events, certainly, but is it a systemic crisis, I think not.
May I ask related questions.
How common is the “slicing” of sub-prime loans? The vast majority? Half? “Some?”
How many slices would be typical? Two? Five? Ten?
Does anyone anywhere have answers to such matters?
Such facts would seem to have been germane to the rating agencies in the initial securitization. An “unsliced” loan would presumably be more valuable now, though obviously not in the past.
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(Btw, this is the first place I have run across the concept of and issues with “re-assembly” of sliced-up loans — which vastly complicates work-outs and maybe that is all that Krugman meant — and I want to compliment the hosts for creating such a stimulating venue.)
Bernard makes a nice point, but I think he’s missing some other important points. It appears that a lot of the models that informed these debt ratings had overly optimistc assumptions about housing prices.
If you have housing price declines (which we have had and will continue to have), then you start to have problems even up into the AA tranches.
In other words, it isn’t just the “high-risk” tranches that have problems, although admittedly their problems are far more spectacular.
Securitization has always seemed like black magic to me because by artfully slicing and dicing the risk tranches you can convince yourself there’s a triple-A pony in the junkpile (I’m sanitizing the language here). And of course lower interest rates mean higher NPV’s and higher asset valuations.
But the lever on the way up is the screw on the way down. I wonder how much weight the rating agencies and Wall Street quants give to the multiplier effect of defaults and rising credit spreads as the asset balloon deflates, thereby increasing the stress on the higher-grade tranches? I guess dynamic analysis only applies to tax policy, not the debt markets.
Can we really put these reputational costs to the side? I would say that they are very big factors in most peoples’ minds, and disregarding them is very unrealistic.
I would suggest that the reputational costs would be one of the things feeding the “we buy ugly houses” industry. They may actually be buffering the entire downturn, altho in my case they only offered 75 for a house which brought me 137.
> How common is the “slicing” of sub-prime loans? The vast majority? Half? “Some?”
1. It is not the loan that is sliced — it is the pool of several loans. Hopefully this clarifies Bernard’s comments aout first loss and last loss to the uninitiated…
2. Yes, it is the vast majority of sub-prime mortgages that is bundled into pools and sliced.
3. Note that the individual loan is usually serviced by the originator of the loan and their servicing vendor. So if there is a default, a work out will happen regardless of the complexity of the securitized “slices”.
4. At the time of rating (and of course buying), it was already assumed that a certain percentage will default, and already assumed that there may be a decline in the value of the asset. The first-loss buyers (and perhaps second- and third-loss buyers) took those risks. I do not believe any AAA tranche (last-loss positions) has ever defaulted in the history of securitization. Which is why the Fed has a window which offers to buy them.
Two recent good books :
1.Credit Derivatives by Erik Banks , Morton Glantz and Paul Siegel
Worth reading for chapter 3 , structured and synthetic credit products , best introduction to CDOs.
2.Credit Derivatives: A Primer on Credit Risk, Modeling, and Instruments by George Chacko , Anders Sjöman , Hideto Motohashi and Vincent Dessain
Does exactly what it says on the tin :no credit derivatives experience necessary.
btw, where is “Private Mortgage Insurance” in this whole story?
I was under the impression that any loan greater than 80% LTV required it. Did that disappear under Bush?
CDOs are a very interesting debt instrument. I lack complete understanding of how they are administered, but is the reason someone buys into a CCC tranche on margin because the fees of entering the tranche are insanely low? Did the industry take a hit because the credit raters did such a poor job of assessing these CDOs? Do I understand correctly that the senior tranche is the first to gain and the last to lose, but they have to pay very very high fees to sustain the CDO? And lastly, since the lower tranches are not investment grade derivatives, who in god’s name buys them?
Another interesting thing that has entered the market fairly recently are Cat Bond CDOs.
To everyone wondering about the voodoo, it’s really not all that different from a portfolio of risky stocks being combined into a less risky whole. Correllation estimates were much too low (so the risk level was much higher than the rating agencies believed and essentially they decided how large the lower grade tranches had to be to protect the senior parts).
Also, to the person who asked how big these were, they are much larger than the number of loans made through the “miracle” of the synthetic CDO (securitized obligation). The long and short is you use default insurance (known as a credit default swap) to add credit risk (writing insurance) and package the premiums along with the cash flows of a small portion of some prime paper (like treasuries) to create a funded CDO and an unfunded credit spread.
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