A reader’s query about energy markets

by on August 6, 2008 at 6:18 am in Economics | Permalink

DSN asks me:

With all the talk of a
(misguided) windfall profits tax on petroleum producers, I have a related
question…: 

Based on logic and observation
of input cost and profit trends in various industries, when the cost of raw
materials rise, companies in a competitive market are often not able to pass through
these cost increases and, therefore, may see a decline in profitability.
How then are oil companies able to make huge profits when oil prices rise
significantly.  Is this not a competitive market?  What is the
economic process in oil production, processing, and marketing that allows oil
companies to make record profits when the price of their raw materials is at
historically high levels?

Here’s one source, I am not sure how reliable:

…about two-thirds of Exxon Mobil’s profits come from oil
and natural-gas production outside the United States, with rising
production in Africa, the Middle East and Russia consistently
offsetting declining output in the United States, Canada and Europe.

Exxon
Mobil said it pumped 7 percent more oil and natural gas than it did
during the same quarter a year earlier.

In other words, Exxon already has paid for a concession in Nigeria and when the oil price is high profits for the company go up.  In that simple model a windfall profits tax leads to less pumping in the short run and even less pumping if people view the tax as temporary.  The tax also means fewer oil concessions in the longer run.  It is also possible — if you take the bargaining solution between Exxon and Nigeria as more or less given — that in the long run the tax redistributes income from the government of Nigeria to the government of the United States.  The less Exxon earns on net, the less it will offer Nigeria for the concession in the first place.

Addendum: Lynne Kiesling comments, worth reading.

Richard S. August 6, 2008 at 8:14 am

Perhaps a more straightforward answer to the question is that oil is not an “input” from the perspective of a company that extracts oil from the ground — it is, rather, the product the company sells. And when the price of a commodity rises due to higher demand, as is the case here, sellers of the commodity make higher profits.

brian August 6, 2008 at 8:31 am

1) Maybe I’m a fool, but I don’t understand how what Tyler said answers the reader’s query (“How then are oil companies able to make huge profits when oil prices rise significantly. Is this not a competitive market?”)

2) Question: wouldn’t a windfall profits tax that leads to less pumping make the market more efficient, as it internalizes oil’s negative externalities?

RexKillerson August 6, 2008 at 8:49 am

The problem here is that Exxon’s payments to Nigeria (or any country) are not fixed – they are usually negotiated as a production sharing contract (PSC). Exxon will get enough crude to cover its costs, and then the remainder will be split between the partners (depending on the structure, there could be other partners who have a claim on the venture as well). High oil prices are a double-edged sword for Exxon however, because if the price of crude is high, they will get fewer barrels as payment for their operating costs and a larger share will accrue to the country. Higher oil prices also encourage countries to renegotiate their contracts and while you could try to take them to international court, unless its so egregious (Venezuela) then its probably just best to let them have it. Finally, higher oil prices encourage governments to hook up with less scrupulous operators who are willing to give better terms. These smaller firms are much worse at safety and efficiency, and are less risk-averse so they are willing to take on projects with a negative NPV in the hopes of striking it big.

A windfall profits tax is a terrible idea because it raises the return on investment hurdle for US companies. If Exxon is bidding for a contract against another firm who is not from the US, all things being equal the rival will have the advantage because they don’t have the additional US tax burden. This results in fewer projects for Exxon, so they pay less taxes, distribute less profits to shareholders, and they hire fewer workers. That’s a lot of wealth that no longer comes back to the US. At a time when the economy is already weak, why would you try to handicap a very successful firm (that paid $40B in taxes last year) and enable its foreign competitors? So if Exxon is out of the picture, who are you going to buy your crude from? The Russian national oil companies? Venezuela? Any one of the corrupt regimes in Africa? Would you really rather see these players in control of the situation?

If you make it uneconomical for Exxon to produce oil then they are not going to do it (they already return billions in cash to shareholders each year through stock buybacks because they can’t find enough projects with a decent rate of return). If that happens, you’ll be giving 100% of the crude revenues to foreign governments (rather than the current split between Exxon and the foreign country) and you’ll be getting $0 in tax revenues (I’m pretty sure the government of Nigeria is not a US taxpayer). At the same time, plenty of good paying Exxon jobs in the US will be lost.

This windfall profits tax is a bunch of populist scapegoating that will have serious negative implications for the US economy.

brian August 6, 2008 at 9:42 am

DSN, this is an excellent question.

The oil market is not competitive in the textbook sense because 6 or 7 large firms control the majority of world market share for refined oil products.

When input costs go up in an imperfectly competitive market, almost anything can happen. One possibility is that the rise in input costs bumps the market from a low price, low profit equilibrium to a more collusive higher price, higher profit equilibrium. Of course whether this can happen depends on what the initial equilibrium was.

A relevant example is the U.S. tobacco industry after the master settlement agreement. Gruber has argued that the tobacco industry (where most market share held by a few big firms) was able to use the “tax” on its product to coordinate on reaching a new high price equilibrium. After the settlement, the big tobacco firms took in revenues well in excess of those needed to cover their payments to the states, so profits actually rose.

spencer August 6, 2008 at 10:01 am

You have to look at the cost of production to understand this. Most people think of a standard production model where the firms buys inputs at current cost, puts them together and sell a product. Most of the cost are variable cost and have to be repeated.

But oil is a very different industry. The overwhelming cost in oil production is fixed, or sunk cost. A firm spends money to drill an oil well. That accounts for the overwhelming bulk of its cost of producing a gallon of gasoline. The cost of that well is sunk or fixed cost and will not change as the price of oil changes.
This is the basic idea behind why a raw material producer like an oil company is highly profitable when the price of oil goes up. Unlike an auto company, for example, where most of their cost are variable cost and change from one period to the next.

The profits are the difference between the largely fixed cost from a well and the current market price. the current market price is supposedly set in the long run by the cost of drilling the new marginal oil well.

This is also the concept behind a windfall profits tax. If the sunk cost are $50/bbl and the market price goes from $55 to $100 profits go from $5 to $45.
Since all the cost are sunk the jump in profits from $5 to $45 is a windfall or/ and an economic rent and even if you tax this away from them it does not change their incentive to continue producing the oil that cost $50.

In theory that other $40 of new windfall profits are suppose to go into investing for new oil and a windfall profit tax reduces the profits available to finance new investment — the source of the overwhelming source of capital spending in the US system. But in practice Exxon and many other big oil companies are now paying out much of this “windfall” profit to stockholders in the form of dividends and stock buybacks rather then spending it on new oil drilling and exploration.

So the standard economic model where virtually all costs are variable costs most economist are use to dealing with really is a poor model for understanding oil economics.

bartman August 6, 2008 at 10:07 am

Even if the oil market was perfectly competitive we could still rationally explain the profits: oil is priced by the marginal barrel. If a company has low cost production, then their profits increase when the cost (and, hence, price) of the marginal barrel go up.

This is stunningly simple, I don’t understamd why Tyler doesn’t mention it.

Also, I don’t understand what the question asker means when he says that firms are not able to pass on commodity price increases. If all firms in the same business face the same cost increases, then the supply curve will shift up and price will increase. Of course, there will now be less sold and some firms will either endure losses or go out of business, but most of the sub-marginal producers will have no problem passing on the costs.

asparagus August 6, 2008 at 11:39 am

As the others said, refining (think of it like a manufacturing business; crude inputs in and refined products out) is much different that oil production. Historically low margin business.

No, there is not an oligopoly or cartel in production. Truly this gets old to listen to. I live in Western Canada and there are literally hundreds of oil companies here. Thousands around the world.

Profits are high right now because reserves were developed historically at lower costs, and the oil sold from them right now benefits from the current high price. Finding and developing reserves is a multi-year, multi-decade cycle. Most oil companies now are worried that costs have risen dramatically, there is a significant risk that if the price is low in the future, there will be a long period of low or negative profits. That’s probably why they pay out higher dividends or buy back stock instead of reinvesting.

The fundamental principles of economics still apply very well.

spencer August 6, 2008 at 1:00 pm

Lynne Kiesling is not answering your question and her answer is factually wrong anyway.

Her answer is based on the meme that there is a refining shortage in the US because politicians have prevented new refineries from being built.

That may play an insignificant, and boy do I mean insignificant role, but the dominant reason there are no refineries in the US is that we do not need any.

Refining is one of the lest profitable industries in the US both in terms of profit margins and return on capital. I know this has improved some in recent years, but not by much. Poor profits is the market’s way of telling us that we do not need need oil refineries.

Refining operating rates are currently around 88%, about the same as they have been for decades. Moreover, as high gasoline prices lead to lower gas and oil consumption the need for new refineries will fall even further.

There is no refinery shortage in the US and there will not be one on the immediate horizon.

spencer August 6, 2008 at 5:21 pm

Rexkillerson — a windfall profits tax should not have any impact on a US firms ability to compete on service contracts in a country where that government owns the oil. The windfall profit tax will not apply in a situation like that because the foreign government is the entity that owns the oil in the ground and makes “windfall” profits and they are not subject to US taxes.

Jason Armstrong August 6, 2008 at 7:37 pm

“The oil market is not competitive in the textbook sense because 6 or 7 large firms control the majority of world market share for refined oil products.”-brian

Yeah, no. See Scale, Economies Of (Chapter 7 in your textbook). See the United States’ Airline industry for an example of what happens when the Government thwarts the proper formation of Economy of scale through merger. Result: they are unprofitable, they go under, and then you pay for a bailout via higher taxes, which gives government more control over your life. Repeat ad naseum. Profit is the motive which drives industrialization. That enables an increased quality of life for all. Cheers.

Bartman August 6, 2008 at 11:13 pm

Next time I see Lynne I’ll have to ask about her refinery statement. It seems a little odd, and she’s not the kind of person to spout nonsense.

Spencer is basically right. What he didn’t mention is that the US has lots of spare gasoline refinery capacity, except it’s located in Europe. In the refined products business, the North Atlantic Basin – Western Europe and North America east of the Great Plains – is basically one big market. What is exceedingly scarce is diesel fuel production capacity. In the last ten years there has been a massive shift to diesel-powered cars in Europe – now over 50% of all cars – and that has messed up a refinery slate that was built to serve a market that was 20% diesel and 80% gasoline. The end result is that the Europeans ship lots of gasoline over here, and we ship lots of diesel over there.

That’s why crude to gasoline crack spreads are so weak – $2 or $3 per barrel. It’s the diesel (AKA distillate) cracks that are keeping the refiners’ heads above water.

This situation has manifested itself in a few odd ways. For example, New York now has the cheapest pre-tax gasoline in the country, since it is the main port for gasoline imports. This certainly wasn’t the case, say, five years ago. Another effect: notice how expensive diesel is, now, in the middle of the summer? For as long as anybody can remember, diesel was always cheaper than gasoline in the summer. But not this year, for the first time since records have been kept.

spencer August 7, 2008 at 9:21 am

One final point on oil refining capacity.

Since the last US refinery was built in 1976 us oil production has fallen about 40%

With 40% less oil to refine, why do we need new refining capacity?

spencer August 7, 2008 at 12:51 pm

One way US oil firms has gotten around the NIMBY objections to new refineries is to build ones in the Caribbean that are really dedicated to the US market.

So in a way shouldn’t we actually include the Caribbean refineries in the US refinery count?

John Dewey August 7, 2008 at 2:02 pm

“Since the last US refinery was built in 1976 us oil production has fallen about 40% With 40% less oil to refine, why do we need new refining capacity?”

Spencer, I agree with most of your comments on this subject. This one has me puzzled, so I’m commenting on it. Crude imports – especially from Canada and Mexico – have increased significantly since 1976. I think we’re refining more crude in the U.S. than we were in 1976, though perhaps not quite as much as in the peak year 1981.

As you pointed out, the U.S. has survived in part by increawed Carribeab refinery capacity. But the biggest capacity increases have come through expansion and improved efficiency of the largest U.S. refineries. That’s why the refinery count itself is meaningless. That dozens of small, inefficient refineries in the U.S. closed the past 30 years had little impact on overall capacity. Some of these were dedicated to small oil fields that have since declined. Others just couldn’t compete with the economies of scale enjoyed by giant refineries – especially when refinery margins dropped so much in the 1990′s.

I agree with your overall argument that the U.S. does not now need additional refining capacity.

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jim May 15, 2009 at 9:57 pm

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